Today's Sunday Times (London) has an article about the World Cup,
including this about the way the profits are split:
"When the three countries were first awarded the World Cup four
years ago only Pakistan and India were guaranteed a share of
the tournament's profits, which are expected to be in the region
of 25m [25 million pounds sterling, in case your screen doesn't
display the pound symbol].
Sri Lanka were told they could simply keep the profits from the
four matches they were staging."
Anybody know the background to this? Why do India and Pakistan get
the lion's share of the profits? Is it because they invested a lot
more, are hosting most of the games, or what? Did Sri Lanka get a
choice?
Just curious ...
Thanx
Gihan
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