> Recently, while looking at a list of test match grounds
> (which gave the dates of the first test played at each
> ground), I noticed the following two entries:
> Lancaster Park, Christchurch, NZ v E, 10Jan1930
> Kensington Oval, Bridgetown, WI v E, 11Jan1930
> I assumed that this was a typo. How could England be
> playing two test matches at the same time?
> And so I have the following questions:
> What circumstances lead to this unusual event? Indeed,
> was it seen as unusual at the time?
The MCC decided that winter to send two major touring sides overseas at
once. From the reading that I have done on the subject I am not clear on
the reasons why - it was, however, the first Test tour to both the West
Indies and New Zealand. It is the only time this has ever happened.
> Was one England team much stronger than the other?
Several of the leading England players of the day chose not to take part in
either tour. Notable players in the NZ tour (which, incidentally,
commenced with games against each mainland Australian state) included
Duleepsinhji and Frank Woolley. The WI tour included Patsy Hendren, Andrew
Sandham, Les Ames, George Gunn, Bob Wyatt, Bill Voce and a fifty-year-old
> Is there anything to stop it happening again?
I thought there may have been an ICC regulation to cover this, but despite
there being definitions for "first-class" matches and one-day
internationals, I can see no clear guidelines preventing a country from
playing two Test matches simultaneously.
Commonsense, however, would dictate that no country would want to weaken
their chances of winning by splitting their top international side into
| The NSW Cricket Association on-line at http://www.nswca.cricket.org/ |
| CricInfo Interactive http://www.cricket.org/interactive/ |
| personal web site http://www.ozemail.com.au/~reyre/cricket.html |
> Just wondering...
> (Apologies to all if this a classic r.s.c topic. But I
> have been reading r.s.c for a year or so and have not
> noticed it before.)