> On Mon, 19 Aug 1996 23:21:44 +1100, Nathan Webb
> >> BTW:
> >> An idea comes to my mind. What about positioning the cueball touching
> >> the yellow ball, and have a touching ball, witch to send behind some
> >> other ball for a snooker. IS THIS LEGAL? (I don't think so, because
> >> one would be concidered to be touching the yellow ball with some
> >> device = the yellow ball)
> >This would have to be a foul, as it is a foul to touch an object ball,
> >not simply to move it. This is a common misconception amongst many
> >players (especially those who never play competitive frames with
> >markers). Even if one of the hairs on your arm touches a ball, it is a
> >foul. I've never seen this sort of foul called, but it could be.
> >In the process of moving the cue-ball to touch the yellow, you are
> >commiting a foul.
> >Nathan Webb
> I'm sorry about my mistyping. It is placing the cueball (ball in hand)
> with our hand nextto, and touching, the yellow ball. The device = the
> cueball, NOT the yellow ball, as I mistyped!!!
No, no, I think I understood you fully the first time, and, yes, it is a
foul. you mean to place the cue-ball in the D, and have it placed so
that it is touching the yellow, right?
This is a foul. It is not just a foul to MOVE an object ball, but to
touch it as well. In this case, the cue-ball is not yet in play, so it
would count the same as your hand. It would be like just grazing the
yellow with your knuckles, which is a foul. Very hard to detect, but an
honest player would own up to the foul (yeah, right).
If the white was in play, then it would be fine, except that the next
shot would be your opponents (i.e. you play the white so that it is
touching the yellow, opponents shot).